Nice, but one glaring flaw. Although Matthew was possibly written in Greek (Papias wrote that it was written in Hebrew), Jesus most certainly did not speak the sermon in Greek. This approach is nothing less that eisegesis. An equivalent would be to take the modern usage of a word, and read it back into a text. The only valid approach with using Greek that was written, but not spoken; is to do a comparative study on the word if found in the Septuagint. Give me the Hebrew word He spoke, then we are getting somewhere. Nice thoughts you have though...
what are you basing this on?