Correctamundo. But the argument right now is over the MEANING of God's Word, specifically what Jesus meant when he spoke about divorce in Matthew 19:9 and Mark 10:2.
When He says that a man who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, did He mean it in the same way He did when He spoke about having lustful thoughts at the sight of a sexy woman being the same as committing adultery with her, or did He mean that the second marriage was a state of continuous adultery?
I've been very close to Bible Christians and Bible churches for many years. I don't know of one that takes the accusation of continuous adultery in a second marriage literally. The Eastern Orthodox churches permit a second marriage after a penitential procedure, but they do not call the remarried man an adulterer.
However, this is the tradition of the Roman Church, and you must admit that, in this case at least, there is ample scriptural support for their position.
Matthew 19: 3 - 9
Seems pretty clear to me.
Thou shalt not commit aduterey.
Thou shalt not covet thy neighbor's wife.
Does that answer your question?
Jesus did NOT say anything about “lustful thoughts.”
He spoke of a man “who looks lustfully at a woman.” “Looking lustfully” is an ACTION. A deliberate action. Having lustful thoughts may or may not be deliberate.
People constantly misquote Scripture, and then construct arguments on their misquotations.