[justme4now]

There is clear Biblical evidence that Mary viewed herself as a sinner.

In connection with the birth of a baby boy, the Mosaic law commanded that, at the end of her purification period, a mother should offer “a lamb one year old for a holocaust, and a young pigeon or turtledove as a sacrifice for sin.”

Regarding a woman who could not afford to offer a lamb, the law stated: “She is to take two turtledoves or two young pigeons, one for the holocaust and the other for the sacrifice for sin.” (Lev. 12:6-8, Catholic Jerusalem Bible)

Had Mary been sinless, she would have misrepresented matters had she offered a sin offering. Yet the Bible reports that Joseph and Mary came to offer, “in accordance with what is said in the Law of the Lord, a pair of turtledoves or two young pigeons.” (Luke 2:24, JB)

By complying with a law applying to sinful humans, Mary acknowledged that she was imperfect.

[MurphsLaw]

So THEN tell me WHY DID John baptize Jesus ???? IF our Lord HAD NO SINS to repent? Why did he need Baptism? Or is it your contention Christ was a sinner too then? Unfortunately the Bible does not offer us those exact details required for a judge or jury....but letting everyone decide for themselves is a disaster just the same...

The Holy Family were an observing Jewish family, the Bible gives us no reason to believe they would not practice the laws of the the Torah and Temple rituals...Christ tells us he even came to fulfill the Law, not Abolish them.....

Mary was "made Grace" before the Annunciation....although we say "full of Grace" the exact greek grammatical translation is that she was in fact "made Grace" and this was not a result of her being with Child when the Angel came upon her...how could this be?