Replies

To you it was OK for her to disobey God's commands and deprive her husband of his due and stay a virgin perpetually. I believe the term that applies to you would be hypocrite.

Mary was the spouse of the Holy Spirit before she was the spouse of Joseph.

Luke 1 [35] And the angel said to her, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the child to be born will be called holy, the Son of God.

I wouldn't mess with the spouse of the Third person of Holy Trinity. If YOU were told in a dream that the Holy Spirit had come upon your betrothed and made her flesh a literal Tabernacle of the Flesh of the Son of God, second person of the Trinity, the single most blessed womb in the history of mankind, you too then would have done what Joseph did. No. He would not have violated that virginal womb, that temple and Tabernacle where our Lord was formed when the Holy Spirit came upon Mary.

Joseph was foster father of Jesus. He was betrothed to Mary. Mary was first the spouse of the Holy Spirit.

If you comprehended this simple fact, and its immense implications, you would understand why your words are blasphemous.

But blind and heardened hearts refuse to see, preferring their doctrines of men over the Truths of God.

Mary was the spouse of the Holy Spirit before she was the spouse of Joseph.

Yes I've heard this strange idea before and it still makes me wonder about your sanity. Where were God and Mary married and when, and why isn't it recorded in any of the gospels? It sure seems like an important point to leave out, don't you think? Did they get a divorce so she could marry Joseph or did she have 2 husbands? If you think my questions are ridiculous it's because that's what a ridiculous notion lead to, more craziness.

This question goes out to all non-Catholic Christians (I apologize in my previous post to DBK for referring to "Protestants" in the case that certain legislators called themselves "Bible-only" believers or if the use of the term "Protestant" by me was offensive to any non-Catholic Christian reading this thread. My aim was not to offend).

Anyway - my question to non-Catholic Christians:

Do you dispute the fact that for the entire history of Christianity, up until 1903, the body of Christianity believed that it was a very serious sin to use artificial contraception? If so, please supply facts to back up your belief to the contrary.

If you do not believe it was the historical position of Christianity, do you admit that it was believed by the major Christian Reformers of the Reformation: Calvin, Luther, et al.? If you believe that the Reformers thought contraception was perfectly moral, please supply some evidence to support that claim.

And finally, if you now believe that the entire body of Christianity was just plain wrong on this particular issue of morality up until 1903, what do you think caused the paradigm shift in morality among non-Catholic Christian beliefs, and can you explain, or do you have any reasonable guess as to why the Catholic Church did not go along with it?