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Fruchtenbaum notes that "the term Israel is viewed theologically as referring to all descendants of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, also known as Jews, the Jewish people, Israelites, Hebrews, etc. Fruchtenbaum fails to make the elementary but critical distinction between Israelites and Jews. We know that all Jews are Israelites, but the overwhelming majority of Israelites are not Jews. He wants to lump Hebrews, Semites, Israelites and Jews together as one, and that is absurd at even the definitional level. His use of the phrase "Israel is viewed theologically as..." does not effectively mask his illogic and is not helpful to his case.

There is no distinction between the two!

In fact, the Bible calls the 'Jews' in 2Kings 16:6 before the destruction of the Northern Kingdom by the Assyrians in Chapter 17.

In 2Ki.18:26, the Jews asked the Assyrians not to speak in the Jewish language.

Did the Northern Kingdom have a language different then the one in the South?

Oh, yes, thats right, the South (Judah) spoke Jewish and the North spoke Hebrew.

http://www.hopeofisrael.net/triblost.htm

>There is no distinction between the two!

How then do you explain this verse, among many which could be quoted to show they are different:

Ezekiel 23:1-4 - Two Harlot Sisters - The Parable of the Two Sisters

       The word of the LORD came again to me, saying:
             "Son of man, there were two women,
             The daughters of one mother.
             They committed harlotry in Egypt,
             They committed harlotry in their youth;
             Their breasts were there embraced,
             Their virgin bosom was there pressed.
             Their names: Oholah the elder and Oholibah her sister;
             They were Mine,
             And they bore sons and daughters.
             As for their names,
             Samaria is Oholah, and Jerusalem is Oholibah. [Israel, and Judah]

Both the Northern and Southern Kingdoms subsequently received their punishments, including separate captivities and diaspora.

>... the Bible calls the 'Jews' in 2Kings 16:6

2 Kings 16:6 says absolutely nothing about 'Jews'. Where are you getting this fantasy? There were no Jews until ~500 BC.

>In 2 Ki.18:26, the Jews asked the Assyrians not to speak in the Jewish language.

2 Kings 16:6 says absolutely nothing about 'Jews'. Where are you getting this fantasy? There were no Jews until ~500 BC.

>Did the Northern Kingdom have a language different then the one in the South?

There is no reason I know of to believe their language was different at the time of the breakup of the David Kingdom. There is however an abundance of evidence showing the Hebrew roots of the Celtic language(s) of Europe, and America. However, language still remains the weakest of all methods for tracing the movement of peoples.

>Oh, yes, thats right, the South (Judah) spoke Jewish and the North spoke Hebrew.

What exactly is the difference between the "Jewish" and "Hebrew" languages?

>http://www.hopeofisrael.net/triblost.htm

This is not a reliable and bias free site looking for the truth. It is a site dedicated to bashing British Israelism, and by it's use you are trying to attach me to them. That attachment is slanderous. The introduction to my LostTribe Freeper Home page clearly states:

This site is about HISTORY, both Archeological and Biblical. It is NOT about Christian or Jewish Identity, British Israelism, White Power or anti-Semitism, so if that's what you're looking for, SCRAM! I speak for no one else and no one speaks for me, so WYSIWYG. If you are a serious student of HISTORY, and have an open mind, read on...

Your# 10).......Amen,........BTTT

From another thread:

Happy New Year......5,763.......years since the CREATION!........5763

The 'Evolution teaching' (the 'bang' myth ...billions/millions of years error )

....is a "Goy" (Gentile) PAGAN "Myth/Philosophy".......!

:-)

Maranatha!

2002 and 5763