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There is no distinction between the two! How then do you explain this verse, among many which could be quoted to show they are different: Ezekiel 23:1-4 - Two Harlot Sisters - The Parable of the Two Sisters The word of the LORD came again to me, saying: "Son of man, there were two women, The daughters of one mother. They committed harlotry in Egypt, They committed harlotry in their youth; Their breasts were there embraced, Their virgin bosom was there pressed. Their names: Oholah the elder and Oholibah her sister; They were Mine, And they bore sons and daughters. As for their names, Samaria is Oholah, and Jerusalem is Oholibah. [Israel, and Judah] Both the Northern and Southern Kingdoms subsequently received their punishments, including separate captivities and diaspora.

So what?

They were a divided kingdom!

Samaria was the capital of the Northern Kingdom and Jerusalem the south.

They and would remain divided until God brought them back together as a nation. It would be like saying 'tell the people of Richmond' (the Conferderate capital) and Washington D.C.(Northern Capital).

Your view that a Jew is different then an Isralite is nonsense.

Notherners in this country are still called Yankees down South.

Does that mean that we are two separate people because the Northeners are called a different 'name' then Southerners.

So, when foreigners told Americans 'Yankee go home' they were really only talking about Northerners!

>... the Bible calls the 'Jews' in 2Kings 16:6 2 Kings 16:6 says absolutely nothing about 'Jews'. Where are you getting this fantasy? There were no Jews until ~500 BC.

In 2Kings 16:6 it says

At that time Rezin king of Syria recovered Elath to Syria and drave the Jews from Elath, and dwelt there until this day.

Pick up a Bible and read it!

The Northern Kingdom was destroyed in the next chapter.

>In 2 Ki.18:26, the Jews asked the Assyrians not to speak in the Jewish language. 2 Kings 16:6 says absolutely nothing about 'Jews'. Where are you getting this fantasy? There were no Jews until ~500 BC. >Did the Northern Kingdom have a language different then the one in the South? There is no reason I know of to believe their language was different at the time of the breakup of the David Kingdom. There is however an abundance of evidence showing the Hebrew roots of the Celtic language(s) of Europe, and America. However, language still remains the weakest of all methods for tracing the movement of peoples.

Well, the South had just been destoyed by the Assyrians so there was no time for a new language to develop.

The North and the South (like our North and South) both spoke Jewish-Hebrew. (same language, same people)

>Oh, yes, thats right, the South (Judah) spoke Jewish and the North spoke Hebrew. What exactly is the difference between the "Jewish" and "Hebrew" languages?

There is none, they are just two names for the same thing. >http://www.hopeofisrael.net/triblost.htm This is not a reliable and bias free site looking for the truth. It is a site dedicated to bashing British Israelism, and by it's use you are trying to attach me to them. That attachment is slanderous. The introduction to my LostTribe Freeper Home page clearly states: This site is about HISTORY, both Archeological and Biblical.

If it is so 'biblical' how come you did not know about 2Kings 16:6!

It is NOT about Christian or Jewish Identity, British Israelism, White Power or anti-Semitism, so if that's what you're looking for, SCRAM! I speak for no one else and no one speaks for me, so WYSIWYG. If you are a serious student of HISTORY, and have an open mind, read on...

The Jews have 12 tribes which God knows as shown by Rev.14.

The tribe of Levi was represented in Ezra, so that tribe was known, even if the Northern Kingdom was wiped out.

So, do you consider the Levites 'Jewish' or 'Israelites'

>In 2Kings 16:6 it says At that time Rezin king of Syria recovered Elath to Syria and drave the Jews from Elath, and dwelt there until this day.

You are using the infamous DARBY "translation". That is no Bible, it is a JOKEBOOK! Next you will be quoting from the National Geographic and The Commerce Business Daily. Look at that verse in REAL Bibles and see that they say nothing at all about Jews. You are betting on the wrong horse!

So, do you consider the Levites 'Jewish' or 'Israelites'

I have read and reread your long posts in this thread trying to filter out the point you are trying so passionately to make. Can you tell me, in just one simple sentence what your point is, and why it matters? Thank You.

(P.S. The Levites are both Jewish and Israelite.)