The ASV, WEB, and the YLT all have Jew for 2Kings 16:6.
In Youngs Analytical Concordance of the Bible states,
Jew: a descendent of Judah, in later times also an Isralite. In 2Ki.16:6 this appellation is applied to the two tribes, in later days the twelve tribes.
Just as I gave you the example of 'Yankee'.
Strictly speaking a 'Yankee' is only a Northerner.
And even a stricter meaning is to make it refer to only those from the New England area!
However, the meaning has to come to mean to those who are non-Americans, all Americans.
A 'Jew' strictly speaking meant the tribe of Judah.
The term however has been broadened to mean all of the 12 tribes of Israel.
No, it never did. A Jew is NOT a member of the Tribe of Judah, and never was. A Jew is a member of the COMBINED organization of tribes consisting of Judah, Levi and Benjamin whose members were given the name Jew. The first time this new word Jew appears is AFTER the return of the residue of this Southern Kingdom from Babylonian captivity ~517 BC. Benjamites and Levites are also Jews, but also only as members of the new organization, returned from captivity.
The actual word Jew comes from Judea, which in turn comes from the tribe of Judah, which was one of Judeas tribes. But that doesn't make a member of the Judah tribe a Jew prior to their being any Jews. ~517 BC !
>The term however has been broadened to mean all of the 12 tribes of Israel.
No, weasel phrases like "has been broadened" and "has to come to mean" mean absolutely nothing in a historical context. Those are merely political accommodations and are not worth a bucket of warm, er, spit.
Rezin was slain in battle by the Assyrian king, and his people carried into captivity 732 BC. This is over 200 years before there were any Jews. Now why do you supposed the New King James Version and others made the correction? That's right, because the original version was WRONG.