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The Theology of John Calvin
http://www.markers.com/ink/bbwcalvin2.htm ^ | Benjamin B. Warfield (1851-1921)

Posted on 04/19/2003 7:32:39 AM PDT by drstevej

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To: P-Marlowe; drstevej; OrthodoxPresbyterian; ultima ratio; .45MAN; AKA Elena; al_c; ...
How did Jesus dispel that notion?

"Repent and believe, and you will be saved."

Were the Jews under some pagan notion of "fate"?

No. The Jews were not pagans (in general.)

Explain.

FATE, DESTINY, LOT, PORTION, DOOM mean a predetermined state or end. FATE implies an inevitable and usually an adverse outcome. LOT and PORTION imply a distribution by fate or destiny, LOT suggesting blind chance.

In other words, a man's lot was decided by fate or chance, and he was powerless to effect his life's outcome.

Calvin's "predestination" is just a rehashing of this pagan notion man's lot was decided by fate or chance, a notion still common to pagan religions like Hinduism.

The debate between God's Grace and our Free Will has gone on from day one, with no satisfactory agreement, no final word. Calvin's word sure as Hades is not The Final Word.

Why?

Because it is, afterall, a "Mystery" that will never be fully understood by man, nor fully explained by man's finite intellect and language.

That is why I see as only a worldly FOOL those men who proclaim to have definitively stated "The Final Word" on the issue of Grace vs Free Will. And that is why I see it as earthly foolishness this obsession over one failable man's explanation of the issue. Calvin most certainly was NOT granted some extraordinary grace and infallibility to be the sole arbiter in the debate.

As OrthodoxPresbyterian has eloquently pointed out, my own Church has differing explanations of the interaction between Grace and Free Will.

Why?

Because it is an infinitely faceted MYSTERY and our finite intellect and limited language is only able to express finite glimpes of these infinite facets of this Divine Mystery.

But to devolve the whole issue backwards to pagan fatalism is below us, and, as I said earlier, downright sinister, for the reasons Ultima Ratio outlined.

And the reasons I outlined here are the reasons I gave up this debate with OrthodoxPresbyterian long ago.

Only a fool thinks they have The Definitive Last Word in this debate.

21 posted on 04/19/2003 12:01:40 PM PDT by Polycarp
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To: drstevej
Dead folk don't grab the lifeline.

Can a dead man displease God?

Can a dead man sin?

Can a dead man despise or reject Christ?

Can a dead man resist the Holy Spirit?

Can a dead man reject the Gospel?

Is a dead man responsible for his "actions"?

And how is a dead man any different from a dead baby?

22 posted on 04/19/2003 12:12:16 PM PDT by P-Marlowe
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To: Polycarp
Only a fool thinks they have The Definitive Last Word in this debate.

In that case, I'll give you the last word. :-)

23 posted on 04/19/2003 12:13:53 PM PDT by P-Marlowe
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To: drstevej; Polycarp
Thanks for the pings. Be back to read later.
24 posted on 04/19/2003 12:17:49 PM PDT by Canticle_of_Deborah
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To: P-Marlowe
Funny, I'm not the one insisting that Calvin's or some other Reformer's interpretation is the Final Word on Grace vs Free Will, and I openly admit that my Church has not definitively stated which of its competing theories is the ONLY Right theory.

Yet I will gladly grasp the final word in stating once again,

Only a fool thinks they have The Definitive Last Word in this debate! 2000 years of hard cold Christian reality are firmly in my corner in saying this.

25 posted on 04/19/2003 12:23:03 PM PDT by Polycarp
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To: Polycarp
Sorry I couldn't resist
26 posted on 04/19/2003 12:28:03 PM PDT by P-Marlowe
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To: P-Marlowe
Can a dead man displease God? YES THEY CAN

Can a dead man sin? YES THEY CAN

Can a dead man despise or reject Christ? YES THEY CAN

Can a dead man resist the Holy Spirit? NEED A MORE SPECIFIC QUESTION HERE

Can a dead man reject the Gospel? YES THEY CAN

Is a dead man responsible for his "actions"? YES THEY ARE

And how is a dead man any different from a dead baby? NEED A MORE SPECIFIC QUESTION HERE

27 posted on 04/19/2003 12:30:10 PM PDT by drstevej
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To: P-Marlowe
Thank you ;-)
28 posted on 04/19/2003 12:42:06 PM PDT by Polycarp
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To: drstevej
I'm not going to post this here, its simply too long. But this is my reason for believing that the Final Word has not yet been spoken on Grace Vs Free Will: REASONS FOR CENTURIES-OLD IMPASSE. The fact is, we still haven't figured it out completely. Augustine stumbled and errored on predestination; St. Thomas corrected his error but didn't complete the thought line; Calvin regressed to Augustines error, and built an entire religion around that error; only in the last century have competent theologians picked up where St Thomas Aquinas left off, completing to a certain degree his work. Yet its still not complete even now.

In drawing this line of theology almost full circle, he quotes Garrigou-Lagrange, a Dominican professor of mystical and spiritual theology, who had as one of his best known students, a Polish Man named Karol Wojtyla. One of his lesser known students (except in certain small circles) was a Passionist priest who is my spiritual director.

I'd appreciate it if you took an honest and careful look at this link, and get back to me with your thoughts via FReepmail.

29 posted on 04/19/2003 12:54:42 PM PDT by Polycarp
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To: drstevej
Since all men are born into sin and are condemned by that sin even before they actually commit any sin, if a baby is born dead, does the dead baby displease God? Or is a dead baby "born again" before it is born the first time? Is it's physical birth then its born again experience?
30 posted on 04/19/2003 1:16:58 PM PDT by P-Marlowe
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To: P-Marlowe
Have dealt with this issue before so this will be brief.

[1] I believe all, including infants are guilty of Adam's sin.

[2] I find no age of accountability explicitly taught in Scripture.

[3] David was confident he would see his deceased newborn son again.

[4] I can not answer the question of infants dying as infants, beyond the hope David expresses.

[5] I opt rather to entrust the answer to God, Who is sovereign, loving and just. Whatever the answer, it will conform to His character.

I am familiar with the range of answers to your question but none of them satisfy me biblically.
31 posted on 04/19/2003 2:06:04 PM PDT by drstevej
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To: Polycarp
Jesus dispelled the pagan notion of "fate" and the fear that flows from it, and Calvin reintroduced it with his double predestination.

You are either misrepresenting Calvin's views or you are just ignorant.

Those who would cast obloquy on this doctrine, calumniate it as the dogma of the Stoics concerning fate. The same charge was formerly brought against Augustine, (lib. ad Bonifac. II, c. 6 et alibi.) We are unwilling to dispute about words; but we do not admit the term Fate, both because it is of the class which Paul teaches us to shun, as profane novelties, (1 Tim. 6:20,) and also because it is attempted, by means of an odious term, to fix a stigma on the truth of God. But the dogma itself is falsely and maliciously imputed to us. For we do not with the Stoics imagine a necessity consisting of a perpetual chain of causes, and a kind of involved series contained in nature, but we hold that God is the disposer and ruler of all things, - that from the remotest eternity, according to his own wisdom, he decreed what he was to do, and now by his power executes what he decreed. Hence we maintain, that by his providence, not heaven and earth and inanimate creatures only, but also the counsels and wills of men are so governed as to move exactly in the course which he has destined. What, then, you will say, does nothing happen fortuitously, nothing contingently? I answer, it was a true saying of Basil the Great, that Fortune and Chance are heathen terms; the meaning of which ought not to occupy pious minds. For if all success is blessing from God, and calamity and adversity are his curse, there is no place left in human affairs for fortune and chance. We ought also to be moved by the words of Augustine, (Retract. lib. 1 cap. 1,) "In my writings Against the Academics," says he, "I regret having so often used the term Fortune; although I intended to denote by it not some goddess, but the fortuitous issue of events in external matters, whether good or evil. Hence, too, those words, Perhaps, Perchance, Fortuitously, which no religion forbids us to use, though everything must be referred to Divine Providence. Nor did I omit to observe this when I said, Although, perhaps, that which is vulgarly called Fortune, is also regulated by a hidden order, and what we call Chance is nothing else than that the reason and cause of which is secret. It is true, I so spoke, but I repent of having mentioned Fortune there as I did, when I see the very bad custom which men have of saying, not as they ought to do, 'So God pleased,' but, 'So Fortune pleased.'" In short, Augustine everywhere teaches, that if anything is left to fortune, the world moves at random. And although he elsewhere declares, (Quaestionum, lib. 83.) that all things are carried on, partly by the free will of man, and partly by the Providence of God, he shortly after shows clearly enough that his meaning was, that men also are ruled by Providence, when he assumes it as a principle, that there cannot be a greater absurdity than to hold that anything is done without the ordination of God; because it would happen at random. For which reason, he also excludes the contingency which depends on human will, maintaining a little further on, in clearer terms, that no cause must be sought for but the will of God. When he uses the term permission, the meaning which he attaches to it will best appear from a single passage, (De Trinity. lib. 3 cap. 4,) where he proves that the will of God is the supreme and primary cause of all things, because nothing happens without his order or permission. He certainly does not figure God sitting idly in a watch-tower, when he chooses to permit anything. The will which he represents as interposing is, if I may so express it, active, (actualis,) and but for this could not be regarded as a cause.

32 posted on 04/19/2003 2:18:10 PM PDT by lockeliberty
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To: drstevej
True. But they do believe they are the deciding factor and apart from their initiation of faith, salvation will not occur.

We are drawn by the Holy Spirit, but we have to accept the gift of salvation before we are saved. Is this not correct?

According to Scripture, we know it is God's will that everyone be saved. We also know from Scripture that there are many who turn from God and refuse His gift of eternal life.

In my church each member of the UMW has a "secret pal". For special occasions (or for a nice surprise) a gift is dropped off in the office bearing the name of one of the members. Sometimes the gift sits there for weeks without being claimed. The gift has been delivered, but the person for which the gift is intended does not claim it. Before the gift can be received the recipient has to reach for the gift. I view salvation in the same light.
33 posted on 04/19/2003 2:49:38 PM PDT by snerkel (Choose Jesus, not some cheap imitation.)
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To: drstevej; Polycarp
Hey, I can handle the bluntness without whacking the abuse button & whining to the mods like the followers of the peepstone prophet.

I don't think bluntness is abuse....

(BTW: Polycarp -- cool name!)

34 posted on 04/19/2003 2:55:30 PM PDT by jude24 ("Facts? You can use facts to prove anything that's even REMOTELY true!" - Homer Simpson)
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To: snerkel
You have articulated an Arminian view of salvation. Calvinism teaches that the drawing of the Holy Spirit includes regeneration. He opens a heart (eg. Lydia). Regeneration in Calvinistic theology logically preceeds faith (although this is instantaneous).

JOHN 6
37 All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never drive away.

44 “No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him, and I will raise him up at the last day.
35 posted on 04/19/2003 2:58:54 PM PDT by drstevej
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To: jude24
***I don't think bluntness is abuse.... ***

Me neither... but try saying this...

***sinister, definitely paganistic, possibly satanic, but certainly not Christian***

about the [FR 5th Amendment]s and see if the Admin ndoesn't tell you to knock it off or see if the abuse button doesn't get hit.

I'll freep you a post that was yanked...
36 posted on 04/19/2003 3:04:54 PM PDT by drstevej
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To: jude24
You have freep mail.
37 posted on 04/19/2003 3:07:12 PM PDT by drstevej
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To: drstevej
Yeah, I know.

Then there's Alex Murphy, who's taken the appelation "Athanasius contra mundum" in that fight. LOL.

38 posted on 04/19/2003 3:12:52 PM PDT by jude24 ("Facts? You can use facts to prove anything that's even REMOTELY true!" - Homer Simpson)
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To: drstevej
I am familiar with the range of answers to your question but none of them satisfy me biblically.

I have the same problem with Calvinism. While the strident Calvinists seem to have all the answers, none of them are biblically satisfactory.

I opt rather to entrust the answer to God, Who is sovereign, loving and just. Whatever the answer, it will conform to His character.

Agreed, but the description of God under the definitions of Calvinism shows a God who is soverign to the exclusion of being loving and just; a god who created most of mankind for the sole purpose of burning them in hell for eternity merely for the good pleasure of his will. Sorry but that is out of character for the God of the Bible. I am certain it is out of character for the God you worship as well.

39 posted on 04/19/2003 3:28:50 PM PDT by P-Marlowe
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To: P-Marlowe
First, remember that I am not a double predestinarian.

Second, Paul in Romans 9 expected you to conclude God is unjust. Dr. SL Johnson used to tell us, "Men when you preach the gospel, if people don't say that you are presenting doctrine that makes God seem unjust, then you probably aren't preaching Paul's gospel!"
40 posted on 04/19/2003 3:40:05 PM PDT by drstevej
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