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To: ThomasMore
I agree, ksen! If it is "not all", as Invincibly has suggested by stating "Why does it have to be all or nothing? ", then which one of you will tell me "authoritatively" that what I am reading is the "word of God".

I'll go one step further than that. By what standard do detractors determine which portions are true (or correctly translated, or contain the "true events", etc etc etc), and which are false/mistranslated/made up? How do those standards hold up when applied to more ancient manuscripts of the same works?

23 posted on 07/01/2003 11:23:48 AM PDT by Alex Murphy (Athanasius contra mundum!)
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To: Alex Murphy
I'll go one step further than that. By what standard do detractors determine which portions are true (or correctly translated, or contain the "true events", etc etc etc), and which are false/mistranslated/made up? How do those standards hold up when applied to more ancient manuscripts of the same works?

See number 24.

25 posted on 07/01/2003 11:25:48 AM PDT by Invincibly Ignorant
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To: Alex Murphy; ThomasMore
I'll go one step further than that. By what standard do detractors determine which portions are true (or correctly translated, or contain the "true events", etc etc etc), and which are false/mistranslated/made up? How do those standards hold up when applied to more ancient manuscripts of the same works?

Exactly

We see an attack on the credibility of scripture from all the lost. That is WHY they are lost.

33 posted on 07/01/2003 11:52:40 AM PDT by RnMomof7
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