[PatrickHenry]

Although the Indians may go to war between themselves, and the farmers may fight for territory between themselves, the war between farmers and Indians is a war between civilizations. The difference is that both the farming civilization and the foraging civilization are complete and self-sufficient systems of property rights. No deal exists that would enable them to coexist and maintain their full sets of property rights.

Bit of a disagreement here. I would suggest that the foraging "civilization" doesn't have property rights as we know them. So there is no conflict of property rights. There is a conflict between a society that has such rights and one that doesn't recognize them at all. (Tribal territory, used by custom, isn't the same thing at as a property right.)

[annalex]

Yes, perhaps it would be clearer if "property" were omitted:

he difference is that both the farming civilization and the foraging civilization are complete and self-sufficient systems of rights.

But I would stand by the text as written. "Property" is no more that a collection of rightful actions with respect to an inanimate object. An Indian system of foraging rights, although is non-exclusive, still qualifies as property as it describes what is and what isn't rightful to do in a wilderness.

[Huck]

I would suggest that the foraging "civilization" doesn't have property rights as we know them. So there is no conflict of property rights. There is a conflict between a society that has such rights and one that doesn't recognize them at all. (Tribal territory, used by custom, isn't the same thing at as a property right.)

What is the basis of a "natural" right to property, and if it is natural, pre-existing law, then explain for me how it applies only to some human beings? I think you hang quite a lot on that phrase "as we know them." Are natural rights so completely open to interpretation that whole ways of life are beyond their scope?