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To: Georgia_JimD
No, they aren't mutually exclusive. Most pedophiles are heterosexuals, but homosexuals are far more likely to hit on underage kids and teens than hets.

Something like a third of all active homosexuals have their first sexual experiences as teens or preteens with fully adult homosexuals. Someone posted a gay boast once, that breaking in a teenage boy, regardless of his nominal orientation, is the emotional apex of homosexuality. Yeah, well, we have punishments for that -- and that's what the "gay rights" campaign is all about.

Longitudinal studies on aversion therapy back in the 50's and 60's, before the gay Doberman pack got them shut down, showed that something like 20-25% of homosexual men accepting psychotherapy reported a change in their sexual activity -- if you want the actual numbers, I'll go look them up -- after the course of therapy was complete. That was using the available methods, insights, and resources of the day. There was a larger group that reported no change in their sexual attraction or activity. Which doesn't invalidate the experience of the individuals who changed their orientation.

It then remains to ask, of the 20% or so for whom conversion therapy had some effect, how many of them were really homosexual, and how many were young straight guys who were "broken in", viz., sexually educated, by gay men?

The problem here is that gay men being men, like their heterosexual counterparts, some of them who have big sex drives have the morals of an alley cat and all the restraint of a bitch in heat. Men like that just aren't good sexual pedagogues for either gender, when their principal concern is just to get sex; but you can bet the house they'll be the first ones to show up.

7 posted on 03/11/2002 4:11:49 AM PST by lentulusgracchus
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To: uncbob,SamAdams76
This article conveys my thoughts more cogently than I attempted to do.
9 posted on 03/11/2002 4:15:05 AM PST by jwalsh07
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To: lentulusgracchus
most pedophiles are heterosexuals

That simply isn't the case. There are 2 issues at work here.

1. First, the classification of "hetero," "bi," and "homo" is absurd. The issue is same sex sexual activity. If it's a guy who has sex with other guys, or a woman who has sex with other women, then we've appropriately narrowed our focus as far as we need to. This is the classification used by the Centers for Disease Control. All this stuff about genetic/non-genetic, uncontrollable attraction, etc., is all insignificant. The behavior is the question. Do they or don't they have sex with members of the same sex?

2. Second, it is NOT true that most "pedophiles" are "heterosexuals." Every study I know of says that "men who have sex with men," based on their estimated 2-5% representation in the population, account for a VASTLY greater weighted percentage of pedophilia than do men who have sex exclusively with women. What this means is that if your neighbor is a male who has sex with males, he is 4 or 10 times more likely to hit on your young male child than your male with females only neighbor is likely to hit on your female child.

13 posted on 03/11/2002 4:28:50 AM PST by xzins
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To: lentulusgracchus
Most pedophiles are heterosexuals

Since homosexuals are only 2% or less of the population I would assume this is true but what about the numbers based on % of the population
20 posted on 03/11/2002 5:03:00 AM PST by uncbob
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