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Dear sinkspur,

I think that part of the confusion is in who, precisely, commits the sin.

I remember reading once (if I recall correctly, the source was a document from the Vatican giving guidance to confessors on how to handle those who raise the issue of contraception within the context of the confessional), about contraception, that in a marriage between a Catholic and a non-Catholic, it is quite possible that the non-Catholic will refuse the Church's teaching regarding contraception. In this case, there are two issues: the right of even the non-Catholic spouse to the use of the marriage; and the immorality of contraception.

I remember reading that should the non-Catholic spouse absolutely insist on always and everywhere using a means of contraception, the Catholic spouse may not deny the use of marriage because of it. The Catholic spouse is obliged to raise the matter of the immorality of contraception with his or her spouse, and within the context of the marital relationship, try to persuade, over time, the non-Catholic spouse to accept the Church's teaching.

But the Catholic spouse did not sin by engaging in marital relations even though his or her spouse used contraceptive methods.

Even more so in a culture where men take the use of marriage often by force, it seems that the use of condoms by the man might be tolerated by the woman.

sitetest

I think what you wrote is 100% true. That does not mean a spouse may use a condom because the other spouse is infected. Now, If the man insisted on using a condom and the woman agreed that is different than the woman disagreeing, but trying to persuade him over time. Make sense?

I remember reading that should the non-Catholic spouse absolutely insist on always and everywhere using a means of contraception, the Catholic spouse may not deny the use of marriage because of it.

I think you're correct about that. In this case, however, the woman is the one who is iniating the use of the contraceptive device, to protect herself from the non-consenting spouse.