Now, look. I know y'all have already jumped all over the bishop, but clearly the gospels differ as a historical account. The chronology is different in many places, which means they can't be taken as an exact historical rendering. And obviously the Church doesn't teach that.
The bishop's statement was kinda vague but I don't see that he was trying to contradict church teaching. Accuse him of poor wording when it's important, as a shepherd, to be scrupulously accurate, but to blast him for one sentence in an article is not fair.
(Before you jump on ME, remember that I'm no theologian and MY wording may not have the correct shade of meaning -- suffice it to say that I believe the gospels are true, and the events happened, and the chronological differences are not really material.)