Posted on 09/22/2006 8:52:55 AM PDT by momfirst
Oops. I guess I should have read the article. My bad. Thanks for pointing that out.
No prob. ;)
you are mostly right. but that law states also that if the husband is sterile, his legal father status is waived
No such provision exists in traditional common law -- not surprising since it was virtually impossible to establish sterility until fairly recent times. But the nature of common law is that it evolves via case law, and I'm sure some states have established a proven-sterility exception, either via case law or via legislation.
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