No it is the Catholic Church that has molded the priesthood into what it wants.He(Christ) did not require his apostles to be celibate. This is a manmade teaching based on middle age thinking. Why is ok for a married episcopal priest or an eastern orthodox priest who converts to Catholicism allowed to remain married and still be priest.
Because the Church cannot divide what God has united (marriage). This is also why the Church frowns on divorce. As another aside, this is the main rationale behind "annulments". An annulment isn't a divorce, by any stretch of the imagination; it's a declaration by committe, approved (eventually) by the Holy See, that the marriage in question never existed. But I digress.
No it is the Catholic Church that has molded the priesthood into what it wants.He(Christ) did not require his apostles to be celibate. This is a manmade teaching based on middle age thinking.
Again, we seem to be going around in circles here. Let me lay it out plainly:
Historically speaking, we didn't have a Bible until approximately the 4th Century AD. Since "Christ and his Apostles didn't use the Bible we have today" does that mean we shouldn't have a Bible? Again, as I stated previously, we Catholics believe that the original deposit of faith given to us by Christ, through His Apostles, is continuing to reveal itself even today, through the help of the Holy Spirit and the Magisterium He guides. It was a mustard seed back in the time of Christ; today it has grown into a mighty tree, and will continue to grow until His Return. What does this mean for the "no celibate preists in Jesus' time"? It means that's a historical fact, but it doesn't mean it was meant for ALL time. If it were, then we should throw out our Bibles.