"It was not the intent of the founders to force the states to apply the federal bill of rights.
Yes. It was."
Tell it to the courts.
“…the right there specified is that of ‘bearing arms for a lawful purpose’. This is not a right granted by the Constitution. Neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument for its existence. The second amendment declares that it shall not be infringed; but as has been seen, means no more than it shall not be infringed by Congress.” - US v Cruikshank
"We think it clear that the sections under consideration, which only forbid bodies of men to associate together as military organizations, or to drill or parade with arms in cities [116 U.S. 252, 265] and towns unless authorized by law, do not infringe the right of the people to keep and bear arms. But a conclusive answer to the contention that this amendment prohibits the legislation in question lies in the fact that the amendment is a limitation only upon the power of congress and the national government, and not upon that of the state. " - Presser v Illanois
"“it is now well settled that the amendments to the Constitution of the United States of March 4 1789, are all restrictions, not upon the states, but upon the United States.” - Hill v State of Georgia
The first two are US Supreme Court decisions...that was the state of the law until the Courts began to read and incorporate intent of the 14th.
Or, be like Bobby and keep being wrong...