[Political Junkie Too]

Yes, I follow, but I don't make the connection to collective rights.

Why would the second amendment only apply to "the people" collectively? Does Article I Section 2 only allow for the "the people" to vote collectively or individually, regardless of the meaning of "the people?"

-PJ

[robertpaulsen]

Article I, Section 2, is referring to "the group of people who are allowed to vote and only for the purpose of voting" may do so as individuals.

The first amendment is referring to "the group of people who are allowed to assemble and only for the purpose of assembling" may do so as individuals.

The second amendment is referring to "the group of people who are allowed to keep and bear arms and only for the purpose of forming as a Militia" may do so as individuals.

(By "allowed" I mean their right is protected.)

Using the phrase "the people" allowed the framers to refer to a group of certain individuals, yet not every individual. And, that group could be composed of different people depending on the right being protected.