No it doesn't. The actual Constitution says "powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people." The word 'expressly' is nowhere to be found. And since there are powers prohibited to the states the real question is where does the power to secede without the consent of the other states come from?
Non-sequitor is an exquisitely chosen name I see! The fact that I used a different word which means basically the same thing changes nothing. The fact that there are powers prohibited to the states changes nothing. Where is the power to prevent secession granted to the federal government and where is the power of secession denied to the states. Unless you can come up with more your post is meaningless. The real question is always, where is the power granted to the federal government. As you yourself say, if it is not delegated to the federal government, nor prohibited to the states, it is reserved to the states or to the people.