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To: Lmo56
An election based on the perpetration of a fraud is no election. The remedy is to remove the basis of the fraud (in this case, Obama).

Biden was not a fraud. He was nominated and elected.

Obama may be disqualified but the peoples pick of a Dem is not. Never has a Dem or Repub been replaced by the opposite party.

Thus, ALL of his 55+ million votes are thrown out.

Where does the Constitution say that?

249 posted on 11/06/2008 8:46:42 PM PST by DJ MacWoW (Make yourselves sheep and the wolves will eat you. Ben Franklin)
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To: DJ MacWoW

Again, you fail to grasp the law and the concept of “original intent”.

I you bothered to read my previous posts with care, I said that I thought that Biden could make a case for his eligibility and his subsequent election.

The 20th Amendment provides that the Vice President Elect shall act as the caretaker President until a new President qualifies.

Presumptively, and based on “original intent”, Obama would be disqualified based on Article II, Section 1, Paragraph 5.

Presumptively, and based on “original intent” ALL of his popular votes would necessarily be null and void since Obama did NOT participate in the election.

The election would then be based on the remaining candidates in the pool. All of McCain’s electors would then be seated since he had the highest number of qualified votes in each state.

I get the feeling that you DON’T want to accept this premise - for reasons, I know not why.

I agree, this WHOLE situation sucks. I can accept Obama, but ONLY if he won fair and square. If not - he needs to go.

Think of it as an ineligible athlete winning a Gold Medal at the Olympics (like underage Chinese gymnasts?). If proved ineligible, they don’t keep their medal simply because the judges (in our case, the voters) gave him or her the highest score.


262 posted on 11/06/2008 9:05:53 PM PST by Lmo56
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