I wonder if they would still consider it the woman’s “choice”, or if they would then consider it “discrimination”? But how can there be discrimination against a “fetus” (as opposed to a human baby)? But then wouldn’t the women be discriminating against an “oppressed minority” by choosing to “get rid of” the “fetus” with the gay gene? Hmmm.
Its no problem. Simply outlaw the test for the gay gene.