The Bill of Rights is a set of declaratory restrictions on the powers granted to the federal government by the states.
That is absolute nonsense. Go read (among others) the Tenth Amendment. I believe it also says something about powers reserved to “the people”.
It did, but it also limited the states in some cases. The 2nd states that a militia is necesarry for a free state. If states disarmed the people, there could be no militia. I defy you to show me any evidence that the founding fathers thought the states had that power.
The intent of the Bill of Rights was not quite that statist. Yes, it reserved powers and rights to the states respectively, but also to the people. The second amendment specifically declares the right to keep and bear arms is a right OF THE PEOPLE, that shall not be infringed. The 9th amendment states that the enumeration of certain rights does not deny or disparage other rights that are retained by the people. You seem to be making the statist argument that even though the right of the people is specifically enumerated, since the broad language of "shall not be infringed" failed to specify "neither congress nor the states shall infringe the right of the people" the states somehow retained the power to restrict an enumerated right. And at the same time, you keep mentioning original intent?