No, it didn't. That wasn't the question that was put to the test in Reynolds. I've already cited for you the relevant the section of Reynolds, but, it appears you've chosen to ignore it. I'm not sure if you don't understand how to read legal opinions, or what. From Oyez, on this very matter...
Facts of the Case: George Reynolds, secretary to Mormon Church leader Brigham Young, challenged the federal anti-bigamy statute. Reynolds was convicted in a Utah territorial district court. His conviction was affirmed by the Utah territorial supreme court.Question: Does the federal anti-bigamy statute violate the First Amendment's free exercise clause because plural marriage is part of religious practice?
Conclusion: No. Chief Justice Morrison R. Waite, writing for a unanimous court, held that the statute can punish criminal activity without regard to religious belief. The First Amendment protected religious belief, but it did not protect religious practices that were judged to be criminal such as bigamy. Those who practice polygamy could no more be exempt from the law than those who may wish to practice human sacrifice as part of their religious belief.
How does that refute my position? Clearly if the federal government can have the power to outlaw bigamy, they are forcing Utah to conform to that common law definition of marriage between one man and one woman. Reynold’s was a test of that principle.
Read on, see what that same opinion says about the common law definition of marriage and the requirement of the United States to uphold that definition within her jurisdiction.