Repeal the 19th Amendment.
Why?
I agree that the 19th gives a very bad result, in that it makes single people the deciding vote. How does that happen?
Husbands voted for their household. They REPRESENTED the whole interest of the household. When the voter had to be a freeholder — a property owner — that was especially so.
Once we allowed woman’s sufferage that meant the household was no longer represented as a whole. Man and woman, without the concern for the welfare of the household paramount tend to vote more whimsically. When there is a an issue that appeals to men one way and woman another, the votes counteract, and the household thus is at a total loss of representation in the issue. Instead the issue is settled by the single, who are much less likely to own a property and less concerned with the protections a property needs in law and governance.
But I AM FOR WOMEN SUFFERAGE. How can that be reconciled?
I’d prefer having one vote per married household, and that could be the man or woman who votes. Yes, I think it would be proper to require a both marriage and property ownership or long-term lease (at least a year) in order to vote. We can allow widows and widowers an exception. Not for the divorced.
Anyway the sufferage should be established by each state to meet its own needs. The 19th and 26th both are two amendments that restricted the right of states to say who may vote in ways that have caused a general calamity.
There’s no reason of the basic rights of mankind that a state can’t require literacy or property ownership to be a voter. Literacy is available to all in our society, as is property ownership. We are long past the era when slaves where forbidden learn to read.