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To: Carry_Okie

Good for you!!

Thank you, I’ll pass, I think. It makes sense to me the way I stated it.

The Bible distinctly states, in English (KJV), that it was the angel of the Lord. It seems to me that the said Bible would have mentioned that it was Satan deceiving the woman if that had been the case.

I will say this, with no disrespect to scholars of any stripe. They can only work with what they have. I would think the literary sources from ancient times now available would be far less than those that were written at the time, which in turn would be far less than the oral usages of the language.

What I’m saying is that the scholars may not know everything. So I’m going with what seems right based on the context. Am I right, or wrong? I guess God will let me know one day.


16 posted on 03/09/2011 12:37:38 PM PST by chesley (Eat what you want, and die like a man.)
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To: chesley
They can only work with what they have.

Well that's a problem all right. Here's why: Most of our understanding of the Tanakh (the "Old Testament," a term offensive to the very Jewish people Paul teaches us to make jealous with righteousness) comes from the writings of the Jewish sages for whom Mr. Tyndale had great respect. Most of them dared not deviate from ancient sources. Hence, we are stuck with our understanding of the Tanakh held hostage to the political constraints the rabbis faced during the Second Temple Period.

The teaching on shnah ha Shemitta or "year of the release" is exactly such a case, where Ex. 23:11 reads "rest and lie fallow" with regard to the land in nearly every translation, including the Jewish Publication Standard (until very recently when chabad.org adopted the same terminology as my translation). The literal Hebrew however, reads "release and abandon." Although that verse is the first mention of the Sabbath for the Land and therefore holds the greatest interpretive authority, it is not even mentioned once in the entire two volumes of the Jerusalem Talmud dedicated to the topic.

Why? Well it's very simple: the reason is military. There is no way the Persians, Selucids, or Romans would have EVER allowed Israel to store food in secret in the field and practice guerrilla war once every seven years! Now, I know that may sound radical to you, as it does to virtually any scholar, (some of whom are reviewing my book now), but once this more literal translation is adopted, I can explain EVERY blessing and curse in Leviticus 26 by normal military, environmental, economic, and social metrics. There is no mystery at all. The interpretation is also supported by the chiastic symmetries in the double parasha contained in Lev. 25 & 26, as well as the Septuagint Greek.

So, why did everybody miss it? Well it's very simple. Most Christian scholars over the last 2000 years didn't care all that much about the Hebrew Tanakh, thinking that the Mosaic Law has been superseded by Christ's mighty works while the Jewish people dare not deviate from the Oral Torah... oh, and there's one other reason I'm sure you would appreciate.

17 posted on 03/09/2011 1:22:24 PM PST by Carry_Okie (The environment is too complex and too important to manage by central planning.)
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