He gave, two parts to his answer, the first part was enough - doctors say that rapes don’t usually result in pregnancy. He could have, should have left it there; it was enough; it was specific enough.
He tried to add to the answer and meant to do so by referring to the incidence of a “legitimate charge of rape”, as opposed to what is left to the listener to interpret, but which he likely meant those incidence where “the charge” of rape was “not legitimate” - it was a false charge. He meant be right, but the distinction is unnecessary, and in trying to say what he meant, he used the term “legitimate rape” - not “a legitimate charge of rape”. Which begged the question, are some rapes “legitimate”? He didn’t need the second part of his answer and when he attempted it he fumbled it and that fumble looked stupid. He didn’t know when to stop talking.
Again, thanks for sharing your opinion.