“... it would be the first medically-verified case of such transmission in the US.” Why would you make such a stupid assertion that you have no way of knowing such? Not even the CDC has ALL records at their disposal to make such a comment and in fact they already know it is false. Way back in the early nineties when I was hawking a new med for treating HIV victims, a CDC consulting Doc told me there was a well documented study of military personnel who contracted HIV from German prostitutes and the vector was through pubic hair follicles. That has never been reported in the media shillery. So how can you make such an assertion so glibly?
See the article in the post above.
Also, men who frequent prostitutes often have open sores from other STDs, and they are quite vulnerable to AIDS infection.
My efforts to google your study found nothing. Please let me know where I might find it.
Also, ask yourself why AIDS is essentially unknown among prostitutes who don’t share needles or receive unprotected anal sex.
Here’s an interesting page that has a collection of medical studies on the subject:
http://www.peaceandlove.ca/AIDSsexmyth.html