But isn't a constitutional amendment the very mechanism of consent you describe?
Ratification of an amendment doesn’t exempt the amendment from constitutional review. While ratification does constitute assent, that alone isn’t enough to ensure consistency with existing provisions. We could, for example, ratify an amendment forbidding women from voting. But since that contradicts the 19th, the Court would have to strike down one or the other. Look at the 18th and 21st. The latter was enacted to specifically repeal the former. It had to or it would have set up an internal contradiction.