It is not immoral bias when a demographic group acts much more violently than others, both towards its other members and other groups.
If blacks reformed the family and applied fatherly discipline to the next generation at the same rate whites do now, their crime rate would drop to a quarter of today’s. (Their illegitimacy is 3 times that of whites.)
How could their illegitimacy be three times whites, when whites’ illegitimacy is between 40% and 50%?
How could their illegitimacy be three times whites, when whites’ illegitimacy is between 40% and 50%?