to have a gay gene, there must be a mutation to produce the deviance
there are other articles casting truth on the subject
“to have a gay gene, there must be a mutation to produce the deviance”
You are using the terminology improperly and imprecisely. Changes in the genome are mutations and each change in the genome is a deviation from the form which preceded it. The question of whether or not there is a “gay gene” in no way required a new and current mutation. The genes necessary to make insignificant and highly significant changes in the development of the organism can lie dormant in the DNA from one generation to the next, from one species to the next, from one genus to the next, and far backwards in time. This is equally true of sexual development where the failure of a single gene can trigger a complete switch of sex at the cellular level. So, there is no need for a mutation to occur in order for the sexual orientation to be determined by genetics and/or epigenetics.
“there are other articles casting truth on the subject”
yes, and the topic of this thread may yet be refuted as many have been before due to failures in the experimental study. Example:
Brief on Sexual Orientation and Genetic Determinism
May 2006
http://www.councilforresponsiblegenetics.org/viewpage.aspx?pageid=66