[Non-Sequitur]

So where does the Treaty of Paris overrule the Articles of Confederation or the Constitution of the United States. It could refer to them as whatever they want, unless the Constitution or the Articles agree then the Treaty is meaningless.

[Rule of Law]

So where does the Treaty of Paris overrule the Articles of Confederation or the Constitution of the United States. It could refer to them as whatever they want, unless the Constitution or the Articles agree then the Treaty is meaningless.

We make progress.

If I remember correctly, the contention was that as of the adoption of the Declaration of Independence, a single country was formed and that the states were not separate, independent, soveriegn entities. We have now worked through the Declaration of Independence -- which clearly indicates that the states were independent entities and now the Treaty of Paris.

Shall we go on to the Articles of Confederation? Here it is even more plain. In fact, it is explicite. Article II says:

"Each state retains its sovereignty, freedom and independence, and every Power, Jurisdiction and right, which is not by this confederation expressly delegated to the United States, in Congress assembled."

Notice how this foreshadows the 10th Amendment. No accident there.