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To: Texaggie79
I thought the subject was whether or not the state should prohibit drugs or whether they should prohibit the violation of rights.
60 posted on 06/14/2002 2:10:14 PM PDT by OWK
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To: OWK
If an inanimate object can, indeed, result in the violation of others rights, then yes, states can prohibit drugs.....
63 posted on 06/14/2002 2:11:11 PM PDT by Texaggie79
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To: OWK
Hey look, I'm a pro druggie too :P
68 posted on 06/14/2002 2:13:57 PM PDT by Texaggie79
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To: OWK
"I thought the subject was whether or not the state should prohibit drugs or whether they should prohibit the violation of rights."

Actually, I think the argument is should the state have the right to prevent risk. If someone is not of their right mind using drugs and is at risk for such violent behavior, does the state have the right to prohibit the substance that causes the behavior?

Drug users cannot say that they have the right to the drugs, but no responsibility for the behavior resulting from them. The old, "I was on drugs and didn't know what I was doing.", is no defense from prosecution.

80 posted on 06/14/2002 2:35:21 PM PDT by PatrioticAmerican
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