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To: William Terrell
I think what he's saying is that 3000 years ago was long before Israel broke up into the two kingdoms and were shuffled off to their respective spankings by the Assyrians and Nebuchadnezzar. There doesn't seem to be the moniker "Jew" until after that time.

As I stated in another thread, this is meaningless. The word Jew is an English word that came into existence hundreds of years after the fact. In the Hebrew language, there is no distinction between Jews and members of the Tribe of Judah. In the Hebrew language, the "Jews" (Yehudim) came into existence with the birth of Judah, the son of Jacob.

59 posted on 08/06/2002 9:39:31 AM PDT by Inyokern
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To: Inyokern
As I stated in another thread, this is meaningless. The word Jew is an English word that came into existence hundreds of years after the fact. In the Hebrew language, there is no distinction between Jews and members of the Tribe of Judah. In the Hebrew language, the "Jews" (Yehudim) came into existence with the birth of Judah, the son of Jacob.

I would imagine that the word "Jew" is a reasonable corrupted form of "Judah", but I don't find any reference to "Jews" in Genesis or Exodus, which follows it. All I see are references to "Israelites" Did I miss that reference? It's certainly possible I did. Go ahead and post a cite.

When the Babylonians captured the House of Judah, they would call these aggregate people something, and probably not "Judah" because that House contained Benjamin and the detachment of Levite priests and teachers as well. Paul refers to himself as a "Jew" even though he was of the tribe of Benjamin.

Where do you get your information? It doesn't seem to be Biblically supported.

61 posted on 08/06/2002 10:36:33 AM PDT by William Terrell
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To: Inyokern
In the Hebrew language, there is no distinction between Jews and members of the Tribe of Judah. In the Hebrew
language, the "Jews" (Yehudim) came into existence with the birth of Judah, the son of Jacob.

The Hebrew language is a very crude and imprecise language.  Talk to scholars who deal daily with both Hebrew and Greek as I have and you will see their frustration at trying to "fill in" the gaps in ordinary Hebrew language manuscripts and second guess what the writers had in mind. To suggest the Hebew language is precise, as compared to Greek doesn't make any sense. That it would suggest (as you say) that Jews came into existence with the brith of Judah is a good example that it is also the source of cultural silliness totally out of touch with real history.

67 posted on 08/06/2002 10:54:13 AM PDT by PaulKersey
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