To: Iwo Jima
direct criminal contempt or indirect criminal contempt?
Bankruptcy judges are not Article 3 judges as listed in the constitution. They do not have a lifetime appointment (at least on paper).
Contempt is to protect the integrity of the court and the standards are fairly clear. (ie you must be warned first)
To: Greeklawyer
"Contempt is to protect the integrity of the court and the standards are fairly clear. (ie you must be warned first)."
Warned? Warned about what? That you must pay money which you don't have? What good is that type of "warning?" I disagree that the standards are clear. It is basically whatever a judge wants to say it is and you can rot in jail until a higher court grants you habeus corpus relief.
17 posted on
08/09/2002 8:42:44 AM PDT by
Iwo Jima
To: Greeklawyer
Yes, but as I understand it, or should I say had it explained to me, is that if you default on a payment and receive a warning from the court, and then do so again, at the creditors request they can hold you in contempt. I too will have to see a test case on this but I can see it coming as it sounded logical when it was explained to me.
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