The Undeclared Naval War with France 1798-1800 and the First Barbary War 1801-1805 don't count as foreign wars in your view of History?
Prior to becoming President and waging war against the Barbary States on the other side of the Atlantic, Thomas Jefferson wrote in his autobiography that in 1785 and 1786 he unsuccessfully "endeavored to form an association of the powers subject to habitual depredation from them. I accordingly prepared, and proposed to their ministers at Paris, for consultation with their governments, articles of a special confederation." Jefferson argued that "The object of the convention shall be to compel the piratical States to perpetual peace." Jefferson prepared a detailed plan for the interested states. "Portugal, Naples, the two Sicilies, Venice, Malta, Denmark and Sweden were favorably disposed to such an association," Jefferson remembered, but there were "apprehensions" that England and France would follow their own paths, "and so it fell through."
Jefferson understood that not only "The State" but also foreign enemies can constitute a threat to a free man's rights. That is why Jefferson attempted to form an alliance with European powers to fight the Barbary States and actually warred on the Barbary States when he was President.
Some Founding Fathers may have warned against alliances for alliances sake when the U.S. had no vital interest involved. However, Jeffersons efforts to create an alliance against the Barbary States demonstrates that Jefferson had no qualms in trying to create an alliance for a specific purpose that served America's foreign interets.
But how does your suggestion that Jefferson formed an alliance against the Barbary Pirates (who were raiding American shipping) have anything to do with the founders' warnings against a standing army, and avoiding foreign entanglements?
No one has suggested that the defense of rights is a bad thing.