I don't have a lot of time to give this deep thought, so I'll pose a question to you instead. (borrow your brain?)
Could this have all started when women were given (and took) the right to vote?
bank ; )
Pardon me, but if you know anything about history, that is such a stupid thing to say.
The fact is, that the time period when "men-only" had the right to vote was extremely short in all of human history. There was not even one lifetime, 1789-1859, that "some" men and no women could vote. There was never any long period of time in America when men could vote and women could not.
The system of only men voting was only from 1789 to the 1850's, when the first states gave women the right to vote. Furthermore, in 1789, and into the early 1800's, only a few men, white property owners, etc, had the right to vote, but not most men. By the time when most men did have the right to vote, in the middle 1800's, quite a few states, were already started granting the vote to women, Kansas, Utah, Wyoming, etc.
Feel free, bank, but I warn you, it doesn't always work right. ;-)
Could this have all started when women were given (and took) the right to vote?
Actually someone, I think it was RobRoy?, brought up the woman's right to vote angle to me. I think it's likely that's when the gradual downslide got the steam to evolve into a headlong rush to disaster...
Interesting that FDR was thrust upon us quite soon afterward.
I'm also coming to believe it may have been a double-barrel shot.
Isn't it interesting that the Scopes trials came only five years later?
I didn't realize that until RobRoy pointed out the other and got me thinking...
Wait! Then add to that the advent of "Hollywood".
Sheesh!In a short time society went under some major changes, not really even getting a chance to catch a breath and analyze where these changes may lead before the two World Wars came upon us.
For those w/ the urge to make the "light dawns on a marble head" comment...
hey, it is interesting and, as always, "better late than never"...
; )