"Valentin claims that the federal government does not have concurrent criminal jurisdiction in instances where the state has criminalized certain conduct. We disagree. Although the states have a primary role in defining and prosecuting criminal law, see Engle v. Isaac, 456 U.S. 107, 128 (1982),
both the states and the federal government are vested with the authority to define and punish offenses against their authority, see United States v. Giovanelli, 945 F.2d 479, 491 (2d Cir. 1991), and "a single act constitutes an 'offence' against each sovereign whose laws are violated by that act." Heath v. Alabama, 474 U.S. 82, 93 (1985)."
Good grief, what an inane cite.
-- How are victimless 'crimes' offenses against fed/state authority?
Who gave fed/state/local governments the power/authority to create 'crime' from acts that harm no person?