Posted on 02/14/2003 11:03:03 AM PST by RJCogburn
While Nazi Germany lost World War II, does that necessarily mean that we won it? Only if we ignore the specific objective of Great Britain and France when they initially declared war on Germany in 1939 and only if the pronoun we encompasses the Soviet Union, who was the true victor in the European arena of World War II.
Why did Great Britain and France declare war on Germany in the first place? The Nazi armies had invaded Poland, and thus Great Britain and France declared war to free the Polish people from Germanys totalitarian dictatorship.
Was that objective accomplished? While it is true that Nazi control over Poland was ended by the war, the Poles nevertheless had to suffer for the next several decades under Soviet totalitarian control. Its difficult to see how that was a victory, especially from the perspective of the Polish people, who had to suffer under Soviet communist rule for the next several decades. The same would hold true for the Czechs.
Despite the partnership entered into between the West and the Soviet Union to defeat Nazi Germany, we must not lose sight of an important point: While it is difficult to measure evil, Stalins evil most certainly equals or even outranks that of Hitler, at least if we measure it in terms of how many people each of them killed. And remember: Stalin and the Soviet Union invaded Poland shortly after Hitler and the Nazis did (which raises the interesting question of why Great Britain and France declared war on Germany and not on the Soviet Union).
Of course, theres no question that the West facilitated the Soviet victory. For example, there was President Roosevelts decision to furnish the Soviet communists with war materiel (lend-lease), which enabled the Soviet armies to more easily defeat the German armies on the Eastern front, and FDRs unconditional surrender demand on Germany, which precluded the possibility of a negotiated surrender that did not involve the Soviet Union.
If the Allies could take credit for their partners liberation of Eastern Europe, wouldnt that mean that they also would have to take responsibility for how that liberation was achieved?
Consider, for example, the mass rapes of German women when Soviet troops entered Germany in 1945, which are described in The Battle for Berlin by Antony Beevor. He points out there were virtually no German women, regardless of age, exempted from the mass Soviet rapes.
Is that what unconditional surrender meant? Were those rapes part of our victory? Is that why the Soviet rapists and their commanding officers were not put into the dock alongside the Nazis at Nuremberg?
For that matter, is that why Great Britain, France, and the United States failed to put Soviet officials on trial at Nuremberg for the murder of some 10,000 to 15,000 captured Polish officers, including those at the Katyn Forest? Remember: the objective at the start of the war was to liberate the Polish people, not kill them.
And what about Western participation in the murder of hundreds of thousands of anti-communist Russians after the end of the war? Despite the communist victory in the Russian Revolution in 1917, many Russians nevertheless still hated communism and communist rule by the time World War II broke out. Thats why some of them either refused to fight for Stalins communist dictatorship or chose to fight against it, the most notable example being Andrey Vlasov, the famous Russian general who decided to fight against Stalin and the communists after he was captured by the Germans.
In the eyes of Stalin and, indeed, in the eyes of Truman and Churchill, a Russian fighting against our partner Joseph Stalin and his communist comrades was a real no-no. So when Stalin demanded that Truman and Churchill deliver the anti-communist Russians to him after Germanys surrender so that he could either murder them or send them to the Gulag, Truman and Churchill willingly complied. Is that what a partnership with evil to defeat evil is all about?
But what about the European Jews? Wasnt their liberation a World War II victory for the West? Its hard to see how, given that six million Jews had already been killed by the time Germany surrendered, in part because of Western refusal to permit them to emigrate to the West both before and during the war.
Could Great Britain, France, and the United States, rather than the Soviet Union, have won World War II? Absolutely. If they had left the Soviet communists to fight on their own and had left the door open to a negotiated surrender by Germany, Allied troops could have ended up liberating all of Germany and much of Eastern Europe from both the Nazis and the Soviets, and long before six million Jews were massacred.
Um...no. The Soviets were attacked in June, 1941, after the beginning of hostilities in Western Europe - heck, after the French had already surrendered. I cannot imagine a sequence of events under which we could have stayed out of the European war and been in a position to accept German surrender. Assuming "we" (by which I assume he means strictly the United States) had not aided Britain, and they'd held out, and the Germans had then attacked the Soviets, AND the Soviets had then gone on to win, who on earth would the Germans have surrendered to?
Moreover, most of the murdering of the Jews did not commence until 1944, at which time all of this was pretty much settled into the sequence of events we know today as history. Why the Soviets would have won by then in the absence of aid, or why that murder wouldn't have happened anyway, is a bit of a mystery.
A very strange and anachronistic thesis, IMHO.
Whatever....
May have been a few months delay though.
Wouldn't have killed all those on D Day.
Probably break even on Germans though.
Question 1: Would it have cost us millions more men? Or an A-bomb on Berlin?
Question 2: Would Russia have beaten the Germans without the vast American aid it received.
It is unclear why Great Britain did it. France though, wanted practice with their 6 reverse gears.
Japan would have fallen in the same time frame. The German air force was beaten by the British and Americans by 1944. Check out the numbers for planes deployed against the Soviets - it was miniscule. In any case, it would have been nukes over Berlin in 1945 - if they got past the jets. Ok, nukes over Hamburg.
Question 2: Would Russia have beaten the Germans without the vast American aid it received.
The Soviets had beaten the Wehrmacht to a draw at by spring 1943. By that time, the American and British aid was not really in the pipeline yet. The northern convoys were effectively shut down, and the route through Iran had not yet been completed. It wasn't really until after Kursk in late 1943 and early 1944 that they really got rolling against the Germans. It was the American trucks and other equipment that gave the edge. So, my guess is that the Germans would have still been slugging it out with the Soviets somewhere in the Ukraine by the time the cross channel invasion came in either 1944 or 1945. The Germans couldn't win, but losing would have taken much longer.
Disclaimer: Opinions posted on Free Republic are those of the individual posters and do not necessarily represent the opinion of Free Republic or its management. All materials posted herein are protected by copyright law and the exemption for fair use of copyrighted works.