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If the Democrats continue to say that they are NOT filibustering the nomination, then why doesn't the Republican MAJORITY -- the one that's supposed to lead the Senate's business -- call for the vote on Estrada. If the DEMs are NOT filibustering, then there's no reason why they can't call for an up-or-down vote and be done with this. On the other hand, if they are filibustering, then why aren't the Republicans forcing them to come right out with it and get it on the record that the DEMs are, in fact, filibustering this nominee? (Appreciate any help on getting me straight with this.)

It requires a 'unanimous consent' to then put a motion up for a vote. Every time Hatch, as chairman, asks for unanimous consent for the senate to vote on the nomination of Miguel Estrada, a Dem Senator objects. The Senate requires a majority of 60 votes to override this refusal to allow 'unanimous consent.'

The Republicans do not want to establish the precedent of requiring 60 votes to get any future judges voted on. So they are forcing the Democrats to keep refusing to allow the vote by a simple majority.

Hope that explanation helps.