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To: CyberAnt
That Mary remained a "virgin" all her life. She didn't.

I knew someone would eventually bring this up, and I happen to disagree with you. I have Protestant friends who have asked me about this, and I can tell you that if you understand more about Mary than what you currently know, you would understand exactly how and why she was a virgin all her life.

However, when I tell people she was a tongue talker, you would think I called her a devil.

There are some Catholics who do not understand the gifts of the Holy Spirit all that well, and do not understand about the gift of tongues in particular. That doesn't make it so. You are right that Mary was in the Upper Room when the Holy Spirit descended. I would imagine it plausible to think that she spoke in tongues.

222 posted on 02/21/2004 8:30:37 PM PST by Ohioan from Florida (The only thing necessary for the triumph of evil is for good men to do nothing.- Edmund Burke)
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To: Ohioan from Florida
Mary could not possibly have remained a virgin all her life. She was a married woman and conceived children by her husband, Joseph. I believe that would prevent her from remaining a virgin. If she had never had more children, I guess you might be able to pass that off.

The ingredients of redemption required certain things. First of all, the blood of Jesus had to be from the Father. The reason was because the blood of humans was tainted from the fall. It is biologically established that it is the FATHER who provides the blood for a child; otherwise, a blood test for paternity could not establish fatherhood.

The next ingredient was the human. In order for Jesus to pay the penalty for the sins of mankind .. Jesus would have to be a human. The only way Jesus could be a human was that HIS MOTHER would have to be a human. The mother of Jesus would require 2 things. She had to be pure (a virgin), and she had to have faith (trust in God). Those were the only things required. Jesus had to represent ALL MANKIND - if Mary was anything other than a representative of mankind, then Jesus would not be able to represent us.

Jesus was sinless because of the blood of His father, not because of the flesh of His mother. In order for Jesus to become sin (for us) even though he knew no sin, Jesus had to be a representative of us - or human like his mother.

There was no other way for redemption to work.

If you elevate Mary by making her sinless, the plan of redemption is out of whack and would not have worked. It would not have been LEGAL for God to do it that way. Satan knew that for man to be restored to God, it would take the sacrifice of ANOTHER MAN. If Mary had been sinless, Jesus would not have been a representative of mankind, and no redemption would have been available to us.
318 posted on 02/22/2004 12:32:31 AM PST by CyberAnt (The 2004 Election is for the SOUL of AMERICA)
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