Posted on 07/18/2005 11:33:59 AM PDT by zzen01
That's not what I get from the passage. We know keeping God's commands mattered to Jesus and so He worshipped in Jersualem when dictated by the law. Jesus did many things contrary to the Pharisees' made-up regulations, but never one thing contrary to God's. I think that the passage shows that he was speaking of a time when the location of worship would not be important (as it isn't today), but that God still would have commands for those who seek after him - the truth. I think he was showing the woman that the Samaritans were worshipping incorrectly (vs. 22).
John 4:25 The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things.
All things concerning both the spirit of worship and the truth.
amen!
What is THIS about then?
Matthew 3
13. Then Jesus came from Galilee to the Jordan to be baptized by John.
14. But John tried to deter him, saying, "I need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me?"
15. Jesus replied, "Let it be so now; it is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness." Then John consented.
Just what 'righteousness' needed to be 'fulfilled?
I'm sorry, it's late in the day for me. I'm just not following the question. Are you suggesting that Jesus' baptism was contrary to God's will or is this just a general question for me.
Actually, I wanted to put ALL in the TO: box, so everyone could take a stab at this.
I've never heard ANY explantion of this event that makes any sense to me.
#422
I have to agree with JKL on this one, it's about obedience. I think the 'fulfill all righteousness' statement is being blown out of porportion. I don't think Jesus was implying that this single event would fulfill all righteousness, but that since John's baptism had now been commissioned by God, Jesus being baptized would allow Him to do all that God commanded and thus 'fulfill all righteousness' in His life here on earth.
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