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To: HarleyD; Kolokotronis; kosta50; jo kus; Forest Keeper
So what does 1 Tim 2:3-4 mean? It can only be interpreted as a general statement that it is God's desire that men from all stations of life come to Him as He so draws them and grants that they may repent.

This is the explanation offered by Calvin:

Hence we see the childish folly of those who represent this passage to be opposed to predestination. “If God” say they, “wishes all men indiscriminately to be saved, it is false that some are predestined by his eternal purpose to salvation, and others to perdition.” They might have had some ground for saying this, if Paul were speaking here about individual men; although even then we should not have wanted the means of replying to their argument; for, although the will of God ought not to be judged from his secret decrees, when he reveals them to us by outward signs, yet it does not therefore follow that he has not determined with himself what he intends to do as to every individual man.

But I say nothing on that subject, because it has nothing to do with this passage; for the Apostle simply means, that there is no people and no rank in the world that is excluded from salvation; because God wishes that the gospel should be proclaimed to all without exception. Now the preaching of the gospel gives life; and hence he justly concludes that God invites all equally to partake salvation. But the present discourse relates to classes of men, and not to individual persons; for his sole object is, to include in this number princes and foreign nations.

(Commentary on Timothy, Titus, Philemon)

This is the relevant passage (1 Timothy 1, 2):
I give thanks who hath strengthened me, even to Christ Jesus our Lord, for that he hath counted me faithful, putting me in the ministry; 13 Who before was a blasphemer, and a persecutor, and contumelious. But I obtained the mercy of God, because I did it ignorantly in unbelief. 14 Now the grace of our Lord hath abounded exceedingly with faith and love, which is in Christ Jesus. 15 A faithful saying, and worthy of all acceptation, that Christ Jesus came into this world to save sinners, of whom I am the chief.

16 But for this cause have I obtained mercy: that in me first Christ Jesus might shew forth all patience, for the information of them that shall believe in him unto life everlasting. 17 Now to the king of ages, immortal, invisible, the only God, be honour and glory for ever and ever. Amen. 18 This precept I commend to thee, O son Timothy; according to the prophecies going before on thee, that thou war in them a good warfare, 19 Having faith and a good conscience, which some rejecting have made shipwreck concerning the faith. 20 Of whom is Hymeneus and Alexander, whom I have delivered up to Satan, that they may learn not to blaspheme.

Chapter 2

1 I desire therefore, first of all, that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and thanksgivings be made for all men: 2 For kings, and for all that are in high station: that we may lead a quiet and a peaceable life in all piety and chastity. 3 For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour, 4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come to the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator of God and men, the man Christ Jesus: 6 Who gave himself a redemption for all, a testimony in due times.

Let us summarize. Three examples of sinners are given

It is after gallery of sinners is painted that Timothy is urged to make "supplications, prayers, intercessions, and thanksgivings". Note, in particular, that Timothy is to intercede for them, and ask that truth be revealed to them. It is meaningless to ask for conversion of a reprobate already predestined to Hell, is it not? If Paul repeated the word "all men" three times in this passage meaning "men of all stations" why did he specifically single out "all that are in high station"? If the intercessions were to be made for the faithful only, why mention the faithless Hymeneus and Alexander and the kings? And if the intercessions are indeed to be offered for all individual men, but God wished only the elect to be saved, why is the divine wish thus interpreted used to urge intercessions for all including the reprobates?

Calvin's attempt to cram his theological speculation of limited atonement into this context is nothing but fraud. It would be excusable to skim 1 Timothy 2:1-5 alone, discover that it is talking about kings and hastily conclude that "all" means "men of all social class". But Calvin has just gone over the first chapter and commented (feebly but lengthily) on Hymeneus and Alexander. He saw the context. He just wants to lead us away from it.

2,679 posted on 02/15/2006 3:35:15 PM PST by annalex
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To: annalex; Kolokotronis; kosta50; jo kus; Forest Keeper
Calvin's attempt to cram his theological speculation of limited atonement into this context is nothing but fraud.

When you can provide me with an appropriate answer to many of the other passages such as Prov 20:24 or a coherent discussion on election and predestination perhaps I'll be incline to agree. Why, heck, I'll settle for an explanation of why God chose Israel among all the nations (as if this wasn't a choice).

I think Calvin's makes a reasonable attempt (so does John Gill) in harmonizing this passage with others. It is consistent with the outward calling and the inward calling theology. (e.g. Noah preaching for 125 years all the while building a ark that could hold only seven people.) You just don't agree with the outward/inward calling even though you can't give an explanation of what man "cooperation" is apart from God.

If God wanted, (REALLY REALLY REALLY REALLY REALLY) wanted all men saved, He would do it. To deny this fact is to deny God's sovereignty-something I would be VERY hesitant to do. It is ludicious to think that God want all men in heaven but 1) He will not step in to make sure man can go to heaven for fear of violating man's free will (Like watch a small child jump off a cliff and not doing anything to stop them.), or 2) man is so intelligent that they are capable of deciding for themselves whether they want to go to hell. (This is a big DUH!!!)

I'll stick with Calvin's explanation.

2,702 posted on 02/16/2006 4:46:34 AM PST by HarleyD ("Man's steps are ordained by the Lord, How then can man understand his way?" Prov 20:24)
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