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To: NYer
"1st Maccabees" and "2nd Maccabees" were written over 100 years before Christ. They do not describe any Christian practice and they don't appear to support prior Jewish practices. Did Moses do this? Did scapegoats and other sacrifices clean the slate for the dead? Or was it for the living?
25 posted on 01/30/2007 5:32:25 PM PST by ConservativeMind
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To: ConservativeMind

Interesting. It makes sense that Jewish practice would become more developed just prior to the coming of the Christ. So the timing of 1st and 2nd Maccabees would be perfect. Have you ever wondered why Jesus came at that precise moment in history? Because the Jews were as ripe as they would ever be to be plucked. It's the only thing that makes sense. Hence, the latest texts and the new Testament would reflect the height of Jewish practice as preliminary to and types of Christian liturgy. The conflicts between the Sadducees and the Pharisees on the topic of the state of the dead, and the practices in Maccabees would reflect the most refined perspective they would have on life after death, atonement, and intercession. Before they would receive the fullness of Truth.


36 posted on 01/30/2007 5:53:10 PM PST by WriteOn (Truth)
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To: ConservativeMind
"1st Maccabees" and "2nd Maccabees" were written over 100 years before Christ. They do not describe any Christian practice

The events in Genesis took place 4000 years before Christ, yet they still play a part in Christian theology.
41 posted on 01/30/2007 6:42:23 PM PST by Conservative til I die
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