So the intent is the same as contraception which impedes fertilization without being abortiofacient.
Yes, and no. It depends on how it is "spun", but for most couples that I know using NFP, most of them are using it to avoid pregnancy. So, as FL said, the intent is the same as using a condom or other non abortiofacient birth control.
Which raises a bit of a quandary. While the stated reason for using NFP is "only in grave necessity", that is left vague enough that some interpret it as "I want a bigger boat, so no more kids".
--"So the intent is the same as contraception which impedes fertilization without being abortiofacient.--"
'Contraception'(hormonal contraception... 'the pill') DOES impede fertilization, BUT it is also abortifacient a good percentage of the time...... well over 90% of the time with some products, but all products are most definitely strongly abortifacient to achieve that 'efficacy'.
While the intent is the same, I wouldn't equate NFP with OCP's ANY DAY.
Murdering children and shunning children are two completely different things all together.
No, the intent of contraception is self gratification. To use another for sexual satisfaction without the consequences of loving and accepting the whole person.
NFP always includes loving and accepting the whole person.