Matthew 22:16 talks about Jesus not caring about a person's appearance, or whether he is wealthy or poor.
In fact what translation is it you are using anyway? The word "partial" is not in the KJV
Acts 10:34, is interestingly followed by verse 35
10:34 Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons:
10:35 But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him.
Romans 2:11
is preceded by Romans2: 1-10 in which God is shown to judge all men fairly
2:2
But we are sure that the judgment of God is according to truth against them which commit such things. 2:4 Or despisest thou the riches of his goodness and forbearance and longsuffering; not knowing that the goodness of God leadeth thee to repentance?
2:5 But after thy hardness and impenitent heart treasurest up unto thyself wrath against the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God;
. 2:6 Who will render to every man according to his deeds: 2:8 But unto them that are contentious , and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath,
2:9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;
2:10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:
2:11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
Oh where to start? Your scriptural postings are taken out of context and bear no relation to partiality re the elect
It makes no difference if it's about the elect or not. A Perfect Judge is impartial to all. That is a fundamental understanding. Partial means one who shows favoritism. God's blessings are given to all. His blessings are available to everyone. What we do with them is what we will be judged on—including the so-called "elect."
In fact what translation is it you are using anyway? The word "partial" is not in the KJV
So? What's so special about KJV except that it is thoroughly protestantized and therefore useless to me? I used NAB. I checked it againt NIV and KJV (to be sure, for I knew someone will say "it's not in the KJV") and in all cases the words were synonimous (i.e. partiality = favoritism, etc.)
Acts 10:34, is interestingly followed by verse 35
That verse does not suggest that God is partial, but that He justly rewards what is just, whether you are elect or not. The Jews believed that only they are the "elect" and even the Apostles were amazed that the Gentiles received the Holy Spirit. The concept of divine favoritism is one of the errors of the Old Covenant to which, apparently, some supposefdly New Covenant Christians subscribe as well.
Romans 2:11 is preceded by Romans2: 1-10 in which God is shown to judge all men fairly
Imagine that! Are you saying I was suggesting otherwise by stating that God is impartial? LOL! In fact, I even state that God judges men fairly when I worte: "In the Christian mindset, it is to be understood that God, who is the Perfect Judge, is perfectly impartial, unbiased, shows no favoritism, or respect for human titles or external appearances of men."
I guess you didn't get that far before you fired off your response. Perhaps re-reading might help?