My point is that molestation of a child whether male or female is the result of attraction to an inappropriate partner who cannot legally give consent. It is not a “classic sense” homosexual problem either. It is pedophilia. Again, why is it so easy to dismiss the alleged 40% of these cases involving girls and make this into a homosexual issue?
Well, use your own figures. If 60% are homosexual crimes, amd 2-4% of the populaton is homosexual there is an overwhelming disparity in numbers not explained by anything other than sexual orientation.
You're the only one I've heard allege that 40% of cases involved girls. The figures I've seen indicate that 80-90% involve teenage boys; pre-teen children, both boys and girls, are included in the rest.
I've never seen any statistics showing that 40% of the abuse involved girls.