Not according to Romans, man's free will alone works within the range of sin: 3:10 "THERE IS NONE RIGHTEOUS, NOT EVEN ONE; THERE IS NONE WHO UNDERSTANDS, THERE IS NONE WHO SEEKS FOR GOD ; ALL HAVE TURNED ASIDE, TOGETHER THEY HAVE BECOME USELESS; THERE IS NONE WHO DOES GOOD, THERE IS NOT EVEN ONE."
Why do we not understand the part where it says "THERE IS NONE WHO SEEKS FOR GOD"?? Why do we not understand the word "NONE"??
The doctrine that man's free will can choose God is based on a misunderstanding of Sin and the Scriptures. Since this verse is in both the Old and New Testaments, why do we not believe it??
Look again at my post. I have always said that. Unregenerated man has two choices, sin or not sin. He has NO choice to turn to God.
Heb 11:6 But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that DILIGENTLY SEEK him.
Ac 17:27 That they should SEEK the Lord, if haply they might FEEL AFTER HIM, and find him, though he be not far from every one of us: