Yes it does.
Insisting it is so does not make it so. Give us the plain Scripture that teaches Jesus would be born on a Jewish feast day, any Jewish feast day.
It's interesting the we have a long accounts in both Matthew and Luke about the circumstances surrounding Jesus' birth, such as the story of the coming of the wise men from the East to Herod with news of the impending birth, and not one word about any of this happening on a Jewish feast day. Rather, we are told that it was the appearance of a star that indicated the timing of His birth.
Given the care with which Matthew uses the OT to confirm the messiahship of Jesus, surely he would have quoted from the OT to demonstrate something as significant as the feast day theory if any such passage existed.
But it does not.
It's irrational to wish the Bible to say something it does not clearly say. And so tell us all how is this theory not a fable of men?
There is no plain scripture that says Our Lord was born on Sukkot. There is plain scripture that allows you to deduce that He was.
To begin with....we know the date of the birth of John the Baptist by knowing the date of the service of Zechariah in the temple [Luke 1:5]. His division [I Chronicles 24:10] would have occurred the week before Shavuot and he would have served another week during the Festival. His service would have been from the 27th of Ayyar through the 11th of Sivan. Shavuot (Pentecost) falls on Sivan 6. John would have been conceived shortly thereafter [Luke 1:24] (mid June our time) and nine months later born on Passover. The Angel Gabriel had told Zechariah that John would come in the spirit of Elijah [Luke 1:17][Malachi 4:5]. A place is always set for Elijah and a cup of wine is poured for him at Pesach because of this prophecy.
Our Lord was conceived during Chanukah (Feast of Lights) [Luke 1:26] 6 months from Shavuot and born on Sukkot....nine months later.
It's interesting the we have a long accounts in both Matthew and Luke about the circumstances surrounding Jesus' birth, such as the story of the coming of the wise men from the East to Herod with news of the impending birth, and not one word about any of this happening on a Jewish feast day.
If you check your sources you'll find that the wise men came about two years later [Matthew 2:7] Then Herod, when he had privily called the wise men, inquired of them diligently what time the star appeared.. [Matthew 2:16] Then Herod, when he saw that he was mocked of the wise men, was exceeding wroth, and sent forth, and slew all the children that were in Bethlehem, and in all the coasts thereof, from two years old and under, according to the time which he had diligently inquired of the wise men. In fact Our Lord was now living in a house.....not a booth (sukkah) [Matthew 2:11] And when they were come into the house, they saw the young child with Mary his mother, and fell down, and worshiped him: and when they had opened their treasures, they presented unto him gifts; gold, and frankincense and myrrh. House: #3614. oikia (oy-kee'-ah)properly, residence (abstractly), but usually (concretely) an abode (literally or figuratively); by implication, a family (especially domestics) home, house(-hold). Luke doesn't mention the Wise Men.
Given the care with which Matthew uses the OT to confirm the Messiah ship of Jesus, surely he would have quoted from the OT to demonstrate something as significant as the feast day theory if any such passage existed.
One of the problems we have always had is the fact that Matthew was written in the Hebrew.....of which no original text exists.....only Greek copies. We're not sure if what we have......is the entire story.
Papias, bishop of Hierapolis, c. 150 A.D. said: "Matthew put down the words of the Lord in the Hebrew language, and others have translated them, each as best he could." Irenaeus (120-202 A.D.) Bishop of Lions, France, wrote: "Matthew, indeed, produced his Gospel written among the Hebrews in their own dialect." Origen (c. 225 A.D.) said: "The first Gospel composed in the Hebrew language, was written by Matthew..for those who came to faith from Judaism." Eusebius, Bishop of Caesarea (c. 325 A.D.), wrote: "Matthew had first preached to the Hebrews, and when he was about to go to others also, he transmitted his Gospel in writing in his native language" (Ecclesiastical History III 24, 6). And Jerome, translator of the Scripture into Latin (the Vulgata or Vulgate version), says the same.
For Our Lord to have been crucified on Passover, Nissan/Abib 14; For the Ekklessia to have been formed on Shavuot; For The Baptist to have been born on Passover; For Our lord to have been conceived on Chanukah; For the Baptist to have been conceived right after Shavuot with the Angelic vision given to Zechariah during the Feast, it is silly to say there is no scripture identifying Sukkot as the birth season of Our Lord. God's Feast Days took on some importance according to scripture ( both Old and New) so why would not the Feast of Tabernacles be significant as a beginning as to when Our Lord came to Tabernacle with us......in a human body?
A much better explanation can be found looking at Xenia's post #107 and clicking the link at the end.