You seem to argue that God does not delegate His Own power - correct? But what of the keys of binding and loosing? How else do you explain that but the conferring of authority from God?
Because Paul, Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, and the other authors of scripture wrote through divine inspiration. The words they wrote under the inspiration of God are infallible, but they as individuals were not infallible otherwise. Furthermore, all of what they wrote through God's inspiration is consistent and in agreement - it does not contradict itself or reflect a change in view over time.
So the inspiration of God can be conferred on men when they are teaching via the written word? But, God cannot confer that same infallibility when another man teaches after the death of the Apostles? And I question your last sentence - what teaching of the Church do you believe has contradicted itself, changed over time, or is inconsistent with Holy Scripture and Tradition?
Not correct, actually - you've misunderstood me. I am arguing that God does not delegate His incommunicable attributes.
So the inspiration of God can be conferred on men when they are teaching via the written word? But, God cannot confer that same infallibility when another man teaches after the death of the Apostles?
God does not speak to His people through revelation after the death of Apostles because by the time the last of them died, He had already communicated to us, through the inspired writings of Scripture, all of the infallible teaching we would need to obtain salvation through His sacrifice on the cross and live lives of pleasing service to Him - the Word made flesh.
That Scripture, recognized as such in its own time and by the early church immediately after its composition, has been divinely preserved as the only infallible source of instruction and edification for God's people everywhere down through the centuries to the present day. Praise God!
And I question your last sentence - what teaching of the Church do you believe has contradicted itself, changed over time, or is inconsistent with Holy Scripture and Tradition?
A discussion of the teachings of the Roman church and its tradition I believe to be contradiction of Holy Scripture would take many, many threads...and they would probably have to be "Open" ones, at that, not "Ecumenical" ones. On that note, out of deference to the spirit of the thread, I'll say no more on this matter, as the intention of my original post was merely to point out that the ecumenical nature of the thread was no excuse for equivocating or mincing words to camouflage fundamental differences in views.
A good evening to all. :-)