To which I responded that that is an opinion.
You responded: But it's not my opinion. :) It's what the NT says. The way the Greek text reads, it's the purpose (English language Bibles say "only" [NAB, NIV] , the koine Greek text says ei me [except, a conditional particle], the KJV version says "sent but for..."). Either way, there is no doubt that the text states his purpose is exclusive.
My question, then, is this: if this were truly the exclusive reason for Christ's coming, then why did Jesus immediately heal that Canaanite woman’s daughter? (Mt. 15:28). Jesus himself says, “And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me.” (John 12:32).
As you know, we could debate about interpretations until the cows come home (and then some :) ) , but in the end neither of us has God-given authority to interpret divine revelation. I don't know about you, but from what I’ve noticed many of the people who claim to have the Holy Spirit (yes, even FReepers :) ) contradict one another in the name of Jesus. Whose right? Who really has the Holy Spirit? Now that’s the million dollar question...
In the end, I have to thank you because you granted me my theologoumenon, and at least we respectfully agree to disagree :)
Regardless, we have both been bought, not with gold or silver, “But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot: Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you…” (I Peter 1:19-20). Pray for me that may I respond generously to God’s mercy and I’ll do the same for you. God bless you.
Jesus came to proclaim that blessed are the merciful, for they shall obtain mercy. He also came to proclaim to love those who hate us, not to return evil for evil, etc. And he lived by those principles.
He never said "don't help" Gentiles. He only said that he (personally) was not sent but for the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Besides, the Canaanite woman expressed faith in him .
You may know this or not, but the so-called Noahides (the "People at the Gate") are Gentiles who observe the Law and Judaism states that they will be saved too (observing the Law makes them "righteous" in God's eyes as far as Judaism is concerned), although they will always be second to the Jews, and never equal to them in terms of rewards.
Judaism was never opposed to helping others, but the mission Jesus claims to have been sent to accomplish was for the lost sheep of Israel, and the Bible is very clear that it means no Gentles, and not even Canaanites. In other words, he didn't come to preach to them, nor did he send his disciples to preach to them.
As you know, we could debate about interpretations until the cows come home (and then some :) ) , but in the end neither of us has God-given authority to interpret divine revelation. I don't know about you, but from what I’ve noticed many of the people who claim to have the Holy Spirit (yes, even FReepers :) ) contradict one another in the name of Jesus. Whose right? Who really has the Holy Spirit? Now that’s the million dollar question...
I couldn't agree with you more, koinonia. I am the last person to involve the HS in my opinions. My opinions are my opinions. I read the Bible the way I read everything else. Some things are clear others are not. I don't hang my faith in God on the Bible, or any "holy book" for that matter. It is more an observation that mercy doesn't exist in nature, whether it be human left to its own devices (we have to be taught to be merciful), nor is there any mercy in the animal world. As such, our awareness of mercy is indeed a revelation that's not of this of this world. And it takes no Bible to realize that something caused all this to exist. and that this world is the way it is, as Taoism says so well, whether we understand it or not.