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To: April Lexington
Actually, it is best to refer back to the original Hebrew and Greek because each version has translation problems.

But that doesn't solve the translation problem.

When the Old Testament is quoted in the New (including when it is quoted by Jesus, as in Luke 4:18) it is generally not the Hebrew as recognized today in Judaism, but the Greek of the Septuagint. Which varies substantially from the Hebrew.

Which is why the teaching authority of the Church is so valuable. There will be disagreements in translation, and they will either be resolved by someone in authority, or they will be personally "wrested", as St. Peter said.

26 posted on 01/19/2009 3:09:29 PM PST by AnAmericanMother (Ministrix of ye Chasse (TTGC Ladies' Auxiliary - recess appointment))
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To: AnAmericanMother
resolved by someone in authority...

The Pharisees had the same problem...

27 posted on 01/19/2009 4:31:22 PM PST by April Lexington (Study the constitution so you know what they are taking away!)
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To: AnAmericanMother

Well, that depends on which Hebrew or Aramaic canon you use.

The Dead Sea scrolls, for instance, are a lot closer to the LXX than was previously thought possible.


30 posted on 01/19/2009 6:06:28 PM PST by redgolum ("God is dead" -- Nietzsche. "Nietzsche is dead" -- God.)
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